Correlation changes after conditioning
Question If we have two features, Feature A and Feature B. In a large and sufficiently diverse population, you find that their correlation is $0$. If you recompute the correlation on a restricted subpopulation, should you still expect it to be $0$? Solution Not necessarily. Correlation measures linear association, and depends on the population being sampled. Even if Feature A and Feature B have correlation $0$ in the full population, the correlation can change after restricting to a subpopulation. This can happen because the two features may have a nonlinear relationship, and the full population may have enough symmetry that the overall correlation cancels out. ...